2023 waec biology essay and objectives questions and answers

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2023 WAEC Biology Objectives and Essay Questions with Solutions

2023 waec biology essay and objectives questions and answers

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Theory Questions 👇👇

1a) The classification of living things involves grouping organisms based on their characteristics. The current classification system consists of Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species.

b) (i) Fungi

Decomposition- Fungi decompose organic matter and recycle nutrients, contributing to soil health.
Medicine- Some fungi are used in medicine, such as Penicillium, which produces antibiotics.
Food- Edible mushrooms are a popular food item across the world. Certain fungi like yeast are used in baking and fermentation to produce wine and beer.
Industry- Fungi are used in industries like paper manufacturing and in the production of enzymes like citric acid and gluconic acid.

(ii) Plants

Food- Plants are a major source of food for humans and animals.
Oxygen production- Through photosynthesis, green plants produce oxygen which is essential to all living organisms.
Raw materials- Fibers are obtained from plants and are used to make clothing, paper, and other products. Plants like timber and bamboo are used for construction purposes.
Medicine- Many plants contain compounds with medicinal properties that are used in traditional medicine and pharmaceutical industry.

These images are also correct for no 1

(2a) [ FILL IN THE TABLE WITH THIS] SEE IMAGES BELOW TOO

IRON: Function: (PICK ANY ONE) -Chlorophyll formation -Electron transport in photosynthesis -Enzyme activation -Nitrogen fixation

Effects of deficiency in plants: (PICK ANY ONE) -Chlorosis (yellowing of leaves) -Stunted growth -Reduced fruit and seed production -Interference with nutrient uptake

MOLYBDENUM: Function: (PICK ANY ONE) -Nitrogen fixation -Enzymatic reactions -Iron uptake and utilization -Seed germination and growth -Chlorophyll formation

Effects of deficiency in plants: (PICK ANY ONE) -Reduced nitrogen fixation -Chlorosis (yellowing of leaves) -Impaired sulfur metabolism -Abnormal phosphorus uptake -Altered enzyme activity

POTASSIUM Function: (PICK ANY ONE) -Osmotic regulation -Enzyme activation -Protein synthesis

Effects of deficiency in plants: (PICK ANY ONE) -Stunted growth. -Leaf chlorosis. -Weak stems. -Reduced flower and fruit production. -Increased susceptibility to diseases and pests.

COPPER Function: (PICK ANY ONE) -It plays a vital role in activating various enzymes within plants -It helps to facilitate photosynthesis -It helps facilitate respiration in plants

(PICK ANY ONE) Effects of deficiency in plants: -Stunted growth -Yellowing of leaves -Death of plant tissue -Reduced fertility -Increased susceptibility to diseases

NITROGEN Function: (PICK ANY ONE) -It helps in building proteins -It is a fundamental constituent of nucleic acids and DNA -It helps in formation of chlorophyll -It helps in energy transfer and metabolism -It is an enzyme co-factor

Effects of deficiency in plants: (PICK ANY ONE) -Reduced photosynthesis -Poor protein synthesis -Leaf necrosis -Increased susceptibility to diseases and pests. -Impaired nutrient transport

(2b) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) Fruits and Vegetables (ii) Grains and Cereals (iii) Legumes and Pulses (iv) Nuts and Seeds (v) Dairy Products (vi) Meat, Poultry, and Fish

(2ci) BUCCAL CAVITY: (PICK ANY TWO) (i) The buccal cavity is the entry point for food and liquids into the digestive system. (ii) The buccal cavity is responsible for chewing or masticating food. (iii) The buccal cavity contains salivary glands that produce saliva. (iv) The buccal cavity plays a vital role in speech production.

(2cii) DUODENUM (PICK ANY TWO) (i) The duodenum receives partially digested food from the stomach and continues the process of digestion. (ii) The duodenum is involved in the absorption of nutrients from digested food. (iii) The duodenum plays a role in regulating the overall process of digestion. (iv) The duodenum secretes several important hormones that regulate various aspects of digestion.

(2ciii) STOMACH (PICK ANY TWO) (i) One of the primary roles of the stomach is to store food temporarily after it has been ingested. (ii) The stomach aids in the mechanical digestion of food through muscular contractions known as peristalsis. (iii) The stomach secretes gastric juices, primarily composed of (HCl) and enzymes such as pepsin, which play a crucial role in chemical digestion. (iv) The stomach controls the rate at which food is released into the small intestine.

(2d) Glucose and fructose

The answer for no 2 in the mages below are also correct

(3a) I: Saprophytism II: Commensalism III: Mutualism IV: Predation V: Parasitism

(3b) (i) B: Prey (ii) G: Predator

(3c) B: Rabbit C: Vultures D: Lion E: Remora fish F: Cleaner shrimp G: Hyenas H: Ticks J: Dogs

(3di) Mutualism

(3dii) There is a mutual exchange of resources or protection that enhances the survival of both organisms.

(3ei) (i) Saprophytic Fungi (ii) Bacteria

(3eii) Decomposers

BIOLOGY OBJECTIVES 👇👇

BIOLOGY 01-10: CABADCCBCD 11-20: DBCDDBDBBC 21-30: ADABDAADCD 31-40: BBCBDCBBBA 41-50: ABCCBCACDA

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WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2023 Objective and Essay Expo Free

WAEC Biology 2023 Questions and Answers Objective and Essay | Get Expo Now

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WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2023 Objective

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WAEC 2023 Biology Essay Questions and Answers

2a) Dentition pertains to the development of teeth and their arrangement in the mouth. … The dentition of animals with two successions of teeth (deciduous, permanent) is referred to as diphyodont, while the dentition of animals with only one set of teeth throughout life is monophyodont.

(1a) (i) Plasma (ii) Red blood cell (iii) White blood cell (iv) Platelets

1b) (i) Plasma (ii) White blood cells (iii) hemoglobin (iv) (v) Red blood cells (vi) Platelets (vii) White blood cells

================================================== 2a.

Dentition pertains to the development of teeth and their arrangement in the mouth. In particular, it is the characteristic arrangement, kind, and number of teeth in a given species at a given age.

A tooth consists of enamel, dentin, cementum and pulp tissue. The portion of a tooth exposed to the oral cavity is known as the dental crown, and the portion below the dental crown is known as the tooth root.

2c) cellulose Starch Sugar

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WAEC GCE Biology Questions and Answers 2023/2024 ( Essay and Objectives)

WAEC GCE Biology questions and answers 2023 . Welcome to 2023 WAEC Biology in English Questions and Answers. You will find WAEC GCE Biology Objective and Theory Answers, WAEC Biology Essay 2023, WAEC GCE 2023 Biology, and the tips you need to pass your WAEC GCE Biology examination at ease.

WAEC GCE Biology Essay and Objectives Questions and Answers 2023 (Expo)

The 2023 WAEC GCE Biology expo will be posted here during the WAEC GCE Bio examination. Keep checking and reloading this page for the answers.

WAEC GCE Nov/Dec. 2023 Biology Answers Loading.. .

GCE Biology OBJ: Loading…

1-10: BADABABCCC 11-20: DCACCBDABA 21-30: CBAACADBCD 31-40: DACCABBDDA 41-50: ACBADACADC

Tabular form Adult X: TWO FOOD NUTRIENTS (i) vitamins (ii) minerals ONE END PRODUCT OF DIGESTION (Pick Any ONE) (i) Glucose (ii) Amino acids Adult Y: TWO FOOD NUTRIENTS (i) carbohydrates (ii) protein ONE END PRODUCT OF DIGESTION (Pick Any ONE) (i) Amino acids. (ii) Glucose (2bi) Constipation is a condition characterized by infrequent bowel movements and difficulty passing stool. (2bii) Adult X, who had a meal of vegetables, is less likely to suffer from constipation. (2biii) (PICK ANY ONE) (i) Vegetables are high in fiber, which adds bulk to the stool and helps in regular bowel movements. (ii) Vegetables are also high in water content, which helps soften the stool and makes it easier to pass. (iii) The presence of vitamins and minerals in vegetables helps promote a healthy digestive system and proper bowel function. (2c) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) White bread provides a quick source of energy due to its high carbohydrate content. (ii) The fried egg provides protein, which helps in muscle growth and repair. (iii) The combination of white bread and fried egg can provide a balance of essential nutrients for the body. (iv) The meal can be filling and satisfying, helping to reduce hunger and provide satiety. (2di) (PICK ANY TWO) (i) Inadequate intake of essential nutrients: People may not consume a balanced diet that provides all the necessary vitamins, minerals, and macronutrients. (ii) Poor absorption of nutrients: Certain medical conditions or digestive disorders can impair the absorption of nutrients from food. (iii) Increased nutrient needs: Certain life stages, such as pregnancy or lactation, as well as certain medical conditions, may require higher nutrient intake than usual, and if these needs are not met, malnutrition can occur. (2dii) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) Stunted growth: Malnutrition can lead to a lack of essential nutrients needed for proper growth and development, resulting in reduced height and weight for age. (ii) Weak immune system: Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making children more susceptible to infections and diseases. (iii) Delayed cognitive development: Inadequate nutrition can affect the brain’s development, leading to learning difficulties and impaired cognitive function. (iv) Lack of energy: Malnourished children may experience fatigue and lack of energy, affecting their overall physical and mental well-being.

(4ai) Iron (4aii) Vitamin K (4aiii) Hemophilia (4b) (PICK ANY THREE) (i) Cucumber (ii) Cabbage (iii) Lettuce (iv) Spinach (v) Broccoli (vi) Brussels sprouts (4c) (i) Blood typing and crossmatching (ii) Compatibility testing for infectious diseases like hepatitis and HIV (iii) Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels to assess the patient’s blood count (4d) (i) Blood group A and Blood group O (ii) Blood group A and Blood group O (4ei) The genetic disorder named in Hemophilia is common in males because it is an X-linked recessive disorder. Males only have one X chromosome, so if they inherit the faulty gene on their X chromosome, they will manifest the disorder. (4eii) If she inherits an X chromosome with the hemophilia gene from both parents (4eiii) (i) Down syndrome (ii) Cystic fibrosis.

5ai) Phototropism (5aii) Phototropism is a biological process where plants grow towards a light source. In this case, the dark box with a hole allowed light to enter from one side only. The seedlings detected the light and responded by growing and bending towards the direction of the hole. This directional growth is a result of differential cell elongation on the side of the seedling away from the light, causing it to bend towards the light source. (5aiii) Without a hole, the seedlings would not receive directional light cues, and their growth would likely be more random and not oriented towards a specific direction. The seedlings might exhibit a more upright and uniform growth pattern. (5b) The balance of carbon dioxide (CO₂) and oxygen (O₂) in an ecosystem is maintained through the processes of photosynthesis and respiration. During photosynthesis, plants and some microorganisms take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen, contributing to an increase in atmospheric oxygen. On the other hand, during respiration, organisms consume oxygen and release carbon dioxide. The overall balance between these processes helps to regulate the levels of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the ecosystem. (5ci) The Sun (5cii) Without a supply of energy, the ecosystem would be unable to sustain life. Energy is necessary for all biological processes, including growth, reproduction, and maintaining metabolic activities. If there is no supply of energy, the ecosystem’s organisms would not be able to function, leading to a collapse of the food chain and the ecosystem as a whole. (5d) (i) Lithosphere: The lithosphere is the rigid outer layer of the Earth, consisting of the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle. (ii) Hydrosphere: The hydrosphere refers to all the water on Earth, including oceans, seas, lakes, rivers, groundwater, and water vapor in the atmosphere. (iii) Ecological Niche: An ecological niche is the role and position of a species within an ecosystem, including its interactions with the biotic and abiotic factors. It encompasses how a species obtains and uses resources and how it contributes to the structure and function of the ecosystem. (5e) (i) Interspecific competition is the competition for resources (such as food, water, and space) between different species in a community. (ii) The likely reasons for the death of seedlings could include overcrowding, competition for nutrients, water, and sunlight among the maize plants. In a small piece of land, resources may be limited, leading to stress on the plants and increased susceptibility to diseases and pests. The lack of sufficient space for root expansion and the shading effect from nearby plants can also contribute to the mortality of seedlings. OR

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Note: The answers below are the 2020 Nov/Dec answers.

i. Development and growth. After meiosis has produced a gamete, and this has fused with another gamete to form an embryo, the embryo grows using mitosis. …

ii.Cell replacement. …

iii.Asexual reproduction.

(3a) TABULATE BIOLOGY ASSOCIATION || EXAMPLE Commensalism – Sharks and remora fish, Tigers and golden jackals Mutualism – Bees and flowers, humans and bacteria in the gut Parasitism – Humans and tapeworms, cows and ticks Neutralism – Rainbow trout, and dandevon cactus and tarantulas (3b) Pollution can be referred to as the introduction of harmful materials or substances into our environment thereby causing adverse charges. (3ci) (i)It contributes to global warming (ii)It leaves a huge carbon footprints (3cii) (i)it also contributes to global climate change (ii)It emits mercury which is a neurotoxin as well as carbon dioxide (3ciii) (i)When it spills in aquatic bodies, it causes loss of aquatic lives (ii)On land, crude oil spills reduce food productivity

6a) (i) Dominance refers to the exertion of a major controlling influence of one or more species upon all other species by virtue of their number, size, productivity or related activities.

(ii) Size: Population size is the number of individual organisms in a population.

(iii) Density: This the number of living organisms per unit area or volume.

(6b) (i) Frog has lungs for breathing but also breathes through its skin. (ii) They have webbed feet, which help them to swim (iii) They have long and strong hind limbs, which help them in leaping and catching their prey.

(6c) (i) This is a mismatched blood transfusion. The blood will agglutinate which will lead to fatality. In such a situation, a reaction known as hemolytic transfusion reaction causes the patient’s body to form antibodies that attack the new blood cells.

(ii) The patient’ blood is tested and to get a matched to be transfused.

(iii) Discontinuous variation

(iv) To know the patient’s rhesus factor and blood group which are parameters necessary for a successful blood transfusion

(6di) (i) Bacteria (ii) Plants (iii) Animals

(6dii) (i) Nitrosomoners (ii) Nitrobacta (iii) Fungi

(6e) (i) Cook the food well (ii) Always cover the food (iii) Ensure the environment is always clean

21 thoughts on “WAEC GCE Biology Questions and Answers 2023/2024 ( Essay and Objectives)”

Please I bed weac question relating to the topic biological processes

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Gce questions and answers on January 2022 January

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Complete WAEC Biology Questions And Answers For 2023 | Objectives & Theory

If you wish to see the 2023 Complete WAEC Biology Questions and Answers before the start of the examination and before every other person, make sure that you do not skip this article.

One of the major problems that most West Africa Examination Council (WAEC) candidates do face that usually results to poor performance in the examination is lack of proper guides.

Once every WAEC candidate is properly guided as regards the examination, there is going to be a massive improvement in the rate at which candidates passes the WAEC examination.

A notable example of such proper guide during the preparation of WAEC examination is having access to the expected questions and answers before going to the examination hall.

In this article, I am going to give you the exact biology questions for the 2023 WAEC examination with their respective answers. In case you are one of those who are preparing for this examination and you would like to prepare ahead of other candidates, please do joke with any information contained in this article.

This article is a typical ‘EXPO’ to what you are going to see in the West Africa Examination Council (WAEC) 2023.

Biology Objective Questions For 2023

Answers To Biology Objective Questions for 2023

Related posts, biology objective questions for 202 3.

1. Which of the following organelles is common to both plant and animal cells?

A. Cellulose cell wall

B. Chlorophyll

C. Cell membrane

D. Large vacuole

The diagrams below are illustrations of different sections of a particular fruit. Study them and answer questions 2 and 3 .

2. The sections in X and Y respectively, are

A. longitudinal and transverse

B. transverse and longitudinal

C. cross and transverse

D. transverse and cross

3. The fruit that has the illustrated sections is a

A. hesperidium

The diagram below is an illustration of a fungus. Study it and answer questions 4 to 6 .

4. The structure labelled I is associated with

A. sexual reproduction

B. asexual reproduction

C. bud formation

D. gamete formation

5. The structure labelled II is the

C. columella

D. sporangium

6. Which of the following statements about the structure labelled III is correct? It

A. secretes digestive enzymes into the substrate

B. absorbs mineral salts from the soil

C. forms the root hairs of the organism

D. develops into stolon

The diagram below is an illustration of a living organism. Study it and answer questions 7 and 8 .

7. The level of organization of the organism is

8. The organism belongs to the Phylum

A. Rhizopoda

B. Ciliophora

C. Euglenophyta

D. Rhodophyta

9. A plant cell placed in a solution with a higher water potential will

A. expand and then shrink

B. enlarge and become turgid

C. expand and then burst

D. decrease in size and become flaccid

10. Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variation than those formed by asexual reproduction because

A. greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction.

B. gametes of parents have different genetic composition.

C. genetic materials come from parents of two different species.

D. sexual reproduction is a lengthy process.

11. Radius and ulna are bones of the

A. pectoral girdle

B. upper arm

C. pelvic girdle

D. lower arm

12. The blood vessel which carries blood from the alimentary canal to the liver is the

A. hepatic artery

B. hepatic vein

C. hepatic portal vein

D. mesenteric artery

The diagram below is an illustration of the longitudinal section of a mammalian organ, Study it and answer questions 13 and 14 .

13. Which of the labelled parts is the cortex?

14. What is the main function of the organ?

A. Excretion

B. Respiration

C. Reproduction

D. Locomotion

15. Detoxification of urea takes place in the

A. pancreas

16. Which of the following hormones is suddenly secreted into the bloodstream of a frightened person?

B. Adrenaline

C. Thyroxine

D. Parathormone

17. The temperature control centre in mammals is located in the

B. hypothalamus

C. pituitary gland

D. adrenal gland

The diagram below is an illustration a type of eye defect in humans. Study it and answer questions 18 and 19 .

18. The eye defect illustrated in the diagram is

A. hypermetropia

B. astigmatism

C. presbyopia

19. The eye defect can be corrected by the use

A. convex lens

B. concave lens

C. bifocal lens

D. cylindrical lens

20. How many gametes are produced in the pollen grain of a flowering plant before fertilization?

21. Which of the following organisms does not undergo incomplete metamorphosis?

B. Grasshopper

C. Butterfly

D. Cockroach

22. An enzyme reaction may begin to decline when

A. the optimum temperature is attained.

B. the pH of the medium is altered.

C. there is an increase in substrate concentration.

D. the atmospheric pressure is altered.

The diagram below is an illustration of the growth of a plant in a water culture. After a few days, the solution turned green and the plant died. Use it to answer questions 23 and 24 .

23. What precaution should have been taken to prevent the solution from turning green?

A. Use a non-green plant for the experiment

B. Aerate the solution daily

C. Cover the culture vessel with opaque paper

D. Keep cotton wool around the seedling to make it dry

24. The death of the plant was likely caused by

A. excess supply of nutrients to the plant

B. inadequate supply of water to the plant

C. algal growth in the solution that used up the nutrients

D. inability of the plant to make food due to lack of sunlight

25. Which of the following factors is not necessary for photosynthesis?

B. Carbon (IV) oxide

D. Sunlight

26. Autotrophic nutrition is a process whereby an organism obtains food

A. by utilizing its stored energy

B. by synthesizing simple substances using energy

C. from other organisms in exchange for some products

D. in a synthesized form, from other living organisms

27. The process that takes place at the light stage of photosynthesis is

A. splitting of water molecules to form hydrogen ions

B. reduction of carbon (IV) oxide to form carbohydrate

C. formation of two molecules of phosphoglyceric acid

D. breaking down of ATP molecules to produce energy

28. The diagram below is an illustration of the foot of an animal.

The adaptation of this type of foot is that it is

A. used as a bait to catch fish in water

B. used as a paddle for swimming

C. effective in scratching the soil for food

D. used for killing prey in water

29. The following organisms are examples of carnivorous plants except

A. Gloriosa

B. Venus flytrap

C. Pitcher plant

D. Utricularia

30. Plants and animals of an ecosystem make up a

B. succession

C. community

D. population

31. Rabbits cannot survive in an aquatic habitat because they have

A. no scales

B. no gills

C. fore limbs

D. lateral line

32. The illustration below is a food chain.

Grass → grasshopper → domestic fowl →hawk

What would happen if the population of domestic fowl decreases? The population of

A. grasshoppers would decrease

B. hawks would increase

C. grasshoppers would increase

D. grasses available to grasshoppers would increase

33. Which of the following features is a characteristic of aquatic plants? Possession of

A. multiple epidermis

B. heavily lignified tissue

C. finely divided leaves

D. succulent stem

34. An association between living organisms in which one organism lives on and feeds at the expense of the other organism is known as

A. mutualism

B. commensalism

C. parasitism

D. predation

35. When a large number of organisms share limited resources, the result is a

B. extinction

C. commensalism

D. competition

36. Which of the following behaviours is correctly matched with the corresponding diseases?

37. Endangered species are organisms that are

A. likely to migrate to other favourable lands

B. likely to disappear from the surface of the earth

C. reproducing profusely in an area

D. dangerous to humans and attacking other to animals

38. Which of the following practices is a wildlife conservation method?

A. Use of cover crops

B. Crop rotation

C. Mulching

D. Discouraging poaching

39. Which of the following resources cannot be conserved?

The diagrams below are illustrations of types of comb found in domestic fowl. Study them and answer questions 40 and 41 .

40. The types of comb show

A. variation

B. inheritance

C. cell theory

D. courtship behaviour

41. Which factor is most likely responsible for the various types of comb?

A. Environment

B. Genetics

C. Physiology

D. Morphology

42. Which of the following statements about mitosis is not correct?

A. Chiasmata are not formed

B. Bi-valents are not formed

C. It does not lead to variation

D. Four daughter cells are produced

43. A mixture of blood with antigen A and blood containing antibody a will

A. lead to agglutination

B. facilitate dissolution of clot

C. have no effect on blood composition

D. change the blood group

44. Plants suitable for experiments in genetics must not

A. produce numerous seeds within a short time

B. have a small number of chromosomes

C. have a relatively short life cycle

D. produce one generation in a long period

45. Which of the following statements about sickle cell anaemia is correct?

A. It is caused by sex-linked genes

B. It is more common in males than in females

C. Two sickle cell carrier parents may have a sickling child

D. It is caused by recessive genes

46. In humans, pointed eyebrows (B) is a dominant trait over smooth eyebrows (b). A student and the mother have smooth eyebrows while the father has pointed eyebrows. What is the genotype of the father?

47. A woman with Rhesus negative blood group was advised not to marry a man with Rhesus positive blood group because

A. it will hinder her from having blood transfusion from her husband.

B. it will result in sickness and probably death of the offspring.

C. her children may all resemble her husband.

D. it may affect her childbearing ability.

48. Which of the following organisms exhibits division of labour?

A. Butterfly

B. Cockroach

D. Housefly

49. Natural selection arises as a result of

A. gene mutation

B. change of habitat

C. reduction in population

D. climate change

50. Which of the following statements is not Lamarck’s postulate on evolution?

A. Great changes in the environment result in corresponding changes in species

B. Frequently used organs become well developed while the ones not used become vestigial

C. Well-developed acquired characters are inheritable

D. Survivors in a competitive community must have inherited useful traits

See also: How to Pass WAEC Examination at One Sitting

I know that some people might be finding it difficult to answer the questions in the previuos section. That is the reason why I have decided to provide you with the answers to the objective questions.

The following are the correct answers to the biology objective questions for 2022 WAEC examination.

WAEC Biology Theory Questions For 2023

The following questions are what you are likely going to see in the section two (theory) of the biology for 2023 WAEC examination.

1. (a) Describe briefly the role of the stomach in digestion.

(b) (i) Name three parts of plants in which food can be stored

(ii) Give one example in each case.

1. (a)(i) What is sexual reproduction?

(ii) Name four organs in mammals that produce sex hormones.

(iii) Name one sex hormone produced by each of the organs named in

(b) In a tabular form outline three differences between reproductions in lizards and birds.

(ii) State three characteristics features of identical twins.

1. (a) Explain the following terms:

(i) disease;

(ii) symptoms of diseases

(b) (i) List two physical and two chemical barriers that prevent pathogens from penetrating the body of an organism.

(ii) Explain how vaccination protects the body from contracting infectious diseases.

(d) Name the causative agents of: (i) Malaria; (ii) Cholera; (iii) AIDS.

1. (i) What is respiration?

(ii) In a tabular form, state four differences between gaseous exchange and aerobic respiration

(b) (i) Explain the term residual air.

(ii) What is the importance of residual air to mammals?

(iii) State four characteristic features associated with respiratory structures.

(ii) Outline three activities that can result in oxygen debt.

(a) (i) What is conservation?

(ii) State six factors responsible for the decline of the abundance and variety of wildlife.

(b) Outline six ways in which the government can improve the situation in 5(a) (ii) above.

(ii) State two causes of eutrophication.

(a) What is photosynthesis?

List: (i) four external factors;

(ii) two internal factors; that affect the rate of photosynthesis.

(b) (i) List the major products of the light dependent stage of photosynthesis.

(ii) State the importance of each of the products listed in 6(c) (i) above.

(ii) State why decomposers are important to flowering plants.

(a) (i) What is a gene?

(ii) Differentiate between the terms genotype and phenotype.

(b) Explain the following terms: (i) hybrid; (ii) pure breeding; (iii) nucleotide.

With the aid of a genetic diagram, determine the result expected if a homozygous rough pea is crossed with a smooth seed coat plant

Whose parent was rough coated?

(a) (i) Describe epigeal germination of a seed.

(ii) In a tabular form, state three differences between epigeal germination and hypogeal germination.

(b) (i) What is seed dormancy?

(ii) State three ways by which dormancy in seeds can be broken.

See also: How to Check Your WAEC Result Online

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WAEC Literature Questions and Answers 2024/2025 | Novels, Essay & Objective

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WAEC GCE Biology Objective and Essay Questions and Answers Nov/Dec 2023

The West African Examination Council (WAEC) biology exam paper for the GCE (General Certificate Examination) is scheduled to be written on Friday, 8th December 2023. This article aims to provide candidates with a comprehensive overview of the objective and essay questions that they may encounter in the exam.

Exam Schedule

The WAEC Biology exam consists of two sections: Section A, which is the objective section, and Section B, which is the essay section. The exam will commence at 9:30 am, with the essay section lasting for 1 hour and 40 minutes. Following this, the objective section will begin at 11:10 am and will last for 50 minutes.

Note : This article is based on past questions and answers

Section B [Essay]

In the essay section, candidates are required to answer any four questions. Here are some sample questions that candidates may come across:

a. List three characteristics of living organisms.

b. In tabular form, state four differences between plants and animals.

c. Name one organism that exhibits both plant and animal features. State four animal features and two plant features possessed by the organism.

a. What is photosynthesis?

b. List four external factors and two internal factors that affect the rate of photosynthesis.

c. List the major products of the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis and state the importance of each.

d. Explain why there are no green plants at the lower depths of some lakes and state why decomposers are important to flowering plants.

a. Explain the terms “disease” and “symptoms of diseases.”

b. List two physical and two chemical barriers that prevent pathogens from penetrating the body of an organism. Explain how vaccination protects the body from contracting infectious diseases.

c. Distinguish between an antibody and an antigen. Name the causative agents of malaria, cholera, and AIDS.

a. Define excretion and list the excretory organs in humans, along with one waste product excreted by each organ.

b. Explain how the mammalian kidney functions as an excretory organ.

c. Name the excretory organs in insects and earthworms.

a. Define conservation and state six factors responsible for the decline of the abundance and variety of wildlife.

b. Outline six ways in which the government can improve the situation mentioned above.

c. Define eutrophication and state two causes of eutrophication.

a. Describe the carbon cycle.

b. State the functions of nitrogen-fixing bacteria, nitrifying bacteria, and denitrifying bacteria in nature.

a. Define a gene and differentiate between the terms genotype and phenotype.

b. Explain the terms “hybrid,” “pure breeding,” and “nucleotide.”

c. With the aid of a genetic diagram, determine the result expected if a homozygous rough pea is crossed with a smooth seed coat plant whose parents were rough-coated.

a. Describe the process of epigeal germination of a seed and state three differences between epigeal germination and hypogeal germination.

b. Define seed dormancy and state three ways by which dormancy in seeds can be broken.

c. State six advantages of using contraceptives in human populations.

WAEC GCE Biology Objective Questions 2023

In Section A, candidates are required to answer all objective questions. Here are some sample objective questions that candidates may encounter:

Where are most nitrogen compounds excreted from humans? A. kidneys B. liver C. rectum D. skin.
A motor neurone transmits impulses from: A. muscle to the spinal cord. B. receptor to muscle. C. receptor to the spinal cord. D. spinal cord to muscle.
In which order does light pass through these structures in the eye? A. cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → retina B. cornea → vitreous humour → lens → aqueous humour → retina C. lens → aqueous humour → cornea → vitreous humour → retina D. lens → vitreous humour → cornea → aqueous humour → retina
A person with Down’s syndrome is born with 47 chromosomes in each cell, instead of 46. What could cause this? A. A mutation happened during the production of the egg cell. B. More than one sperm fused with the egg at fertilisation. C. Radiation caused a change in the structure of a gene in the father’s sperm. D. The mother was exposed to harmful chemicals while she was pregnant.
A red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant. All the offspring have red flowers. What is the genotype of these offspring? A. RR and Rr B. RR only C. Rr only D. rr only
A plant has flowers whose anthers mature and fall off before the stigma is fully developed. What will this prevent? A. cross-pollination B. insect-pollination C. self-pollination D. wind-pollination
The cell wall of a plant cell is removed using an enzyme. What would happen if this cell is then placed in distilled water? A. It would take longer for the cell to become turgid. B. Proteins in the cytoplasm would leave through the cell membrane. C. The cell would become smaller as water passes out. D. The cell would burst as water moves into it.
Some organisms live at the bottom of the seas where it is very dark. To synthesise glucose, they use energy from chemicals in the very hot water that comes out of volcanoes. What is a distinguishing feature of these organisms? A. Their enzymes are easily denatured by heat. B. They do not need carbon dioxide. C. They do not need to be green. D. They obtain energy only as carnivores.
Under which set of conditions will the transpiration rate of a well-watered plant be fastest? A. a cool, dry, windless day B. a cool, rainy, windy day C. a hot, dry, windy day D. a hot, rainy, windy day.
Why is glucose found in the urine of diabetics? A. increased uptake and use of glucose by the body cells B. not enough glucose in the blood is converted to glycogen C. stored fats in the body are being oxidized D. too much glucose is absorbed by the kidney cells.
Which bones form a joint at the shoulder? A. humerus and scapula B. humerus and ulna C. radius and ulna D. radius and scapula.
Which sequence describes the flow of energy in an ecosystem? A. carnivore → herbivore → plant → Sun B. plant → herbivore → carnivore → Sun C. Sun → carnivore → herbivore → plant D. Sun → plant → herbivore → carnivore.

These are just a few examples of the objective questions that may be asked in the WAEC GCE Biology exam. It is important for candidates to thoroughly revise the topics covered in the syllabus and practice answering similar questions to increase their chances of success.

Remember, there is no substitute for hard work and preparation. Avoid falling victim to scammers online who claim to provide leaked exam questions or answers. Stick to legitimate study materials and use past questions as a revision guide.

Good luck with your exam preparations!

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Home » WAEC ANSWERS » WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2023 (100% Sure) Theory & Obj Solution

WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2023 (100% Sure) Theory & Obj Solution

WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2023 (100% Sure) Theory & Obj Solution, Get free Verified WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2023. WAEC May/June Free Biology EXPO answers. West African Examinations Council Biology Theory and Objective Answers for you to have good WAEC result. You will also understand how WAEC Biology questions are set and how to answer them. The West African Examinations Council is an examination board saddled with the responsibility of setting, testing and conducting WASSCE in all West African country.

Please Note that the WAEC 2023 Biology Questions and Answers and any other WAEC expo is provided by us for free. We understand that a lot of website charge of collect money from student to provide WAEC expo Biology Answers to them. WAEC questions and answers are provided for free. We will do same during Other Exam like WAEC GCE.

WAEC 2023 Biology Questions will be posted in this page. Our Team are right now with the question paper. It is under verification and once the verification process complete, we will go ahead to upload it here.

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WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2024 Objective and Essay

Post author: Study Admin
Post published: December 3, 2023
Post category: School News
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WAEC biology 2024 answers are now available. WAEC biology questions and answers 2024/2025 objective and essay and other exam details for WASSCE 2024 are on this page. See the 2024 WAEC biology answers for both objective and theory below. Get the WAEC biology objective and essay answers here.

The 2024 biology WAEC OBJ and theory questions and answers are provided here for free. All you have to do is to go through the questions and take note of the WAEC biology answers 2024. Read on to find out.

Have you been searching on Google in order to get the WASSCE biology questions and answers 2024? If so, we have got you covered!

We have the 2024 WAEC biology questions and our team of experts will soon upload the WAEC biology questions and their accurate answers to help you pass the 2024 WAEC biology examination.

The 2024 WAEC biology theory questions and OBJ will be uploaded any moment from now. So if you are searching for the WAEC biology answers 2024 for objective and theory, then you are on the right page. See WAEC biology objective and essay questions and answers below.

WAEC Biology Answers 2024 Objective and Theory

The West Africa Examinations Council (WAEC) is an examination body in Nigeria that conducts the Senior Secondary Certificate Examination and the General Certificate in Education in May/June and November/December respectively.

The 2024 WAEC biology questions are set from the SS1 to SS3 Biology syllabus. So all the questions you will encounter in this year’s examination are in the syllabus, and nearly 90% of the questions are repeated.

You don’t have to worry about the 2024 WAEC biology questions and answers PDF (essay and objective). The WAEC biology answers 2024 will be uploaded any moment from now. All you need to do is to keep refreshing this page so as not to miss out.

Once again, keep refreshing this page because we will upload the original WAEC biology questions and answers for this year’s exams on this page at any moment from now. Also, to download the past questions and answers, click on this link WAEC biology past questions .

If you have any questions about the WAEC biology questions 2024 and answers, feel free to use the comment box below or use the Chat With Us button and we will respond immediately.

The 2024 WAEC biology answers will be posted here. Be patient. Keep checking and reloading this page for the correct answers. WAEC 2024 biology answers loading…….

There is nothing like WAEC biology expo 2024 online. All students are advised to avoid all patronizing online fraudsters/vendors who claim to provide such services.

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WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2022/2023 [OBJ & Theory Expo]

December 20, 2021

Free WAEC Biology Answers 2021 to WAEC 2021 Biology Questions for OBJ & Theory with free expo guidelines for 2021 candidates is now available on this page.

Our WAEC Biology questions and answers 2021 Materials have been provided to assist candidates to pass this WAEC exam in flying colors in one sitting.

This is why we have provided WAEC candidates with this free WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2021 expo solution guide. Our WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2021 solution guide is free for all subjects…

Check out the free WAEC questions and answers for Biology for paper 1 (OBJ), paper 2 (Theory & essay), and paper three (Practical) below. See Biology practical specimen for 2021 here

WAEC Biology Practice Questions and Answers 2021

Below are sample WAEC questions answers options for Biology. These questions are for practice. Check them out and keep checking back for the correct questions and answers for 2021.

Recommended: Register WAEC Here

Exam Pattern:

WAEC Biology exam comes in theory, OBJ, and practical papers. It has paper one, paper two, and paper three. Paper 1 is the Objective paper (OBJ), Paper 2 is Theory (essay), paper 3 is the practical paper.

1. What is another Name for larva?

Caterpillar

2. Which source of energy do plants need to produce food?

Photosynthesis
Chlorophyll
Microorganisms

3. Which of the following is the major difference between animal and plant nutrition?

The plant has the ability to synthesize:

Food for plants and animals
B Water for plants
Water for animals
Food for plants only.

4. The process of converting starch into maltose is known as____?

Condensation
Translocation

5. What Causes the ascent of water in a tall tree?

Adhesive forces
Transpiration pull
Root pressure
Cohesive force

6. Which of these substances digestion will be affected if the duodenum of a patient is removed surgically?

Starch and protein only
Starch and lipids
Starch, protein, and maltose
Starch, protein, and lipids.

How to Answer WAEC Biology Theory Questions [Paper 2].

Answering WAEC Biology theory questions can be very intimidating especially when you don’t have self-confidence.

But the advice I will give you if you want to pass this Exam is to always make sure you eliminate fear first before going for the Exam. To Answer any WAEC Theory question, make sure you follow these steps below↓

First, read and understand the instructions and format that Question and Answer must follow and obey before you start answering it.
Read a particular question and understand what the questions are looking for. Read like two or three times before you give start providing your answer
Your Answers should start by quoting the question if it is an essay question.
Make sure to go through entire Answers to make sure that all your answers, writings, and spellings are presented accurately in the required format.
Make sure you follow the Theory Answers Structures. Below is the complete WAEC theory answers Structures to take note of↓

Helpful WAEC Materials:

Download syllabus for all WAEC subjects here
Solved WAEC Questions and Answers for all subjects
The secret to prepare and pass WAEC 2021 Exam

WAEC Biology Theory Answers Structures

Whenever you are answering WAEC theory or Essay questions, always make sure you take note of the following answer structures and make sure you present your answers as stated here:

When the Question says:

“Describe”: This means you should say what you see – no need for reasons. You can give a detailed account, using examples
“State”: This means you should Provide a factual report with no explanation or opinion.
“ List ”: This means you should write down listed points, not paragraphs. Keep it brief.
“ Explain ”: This means you should give reasons
“ Outline ”: This means you should give a brief summary
“ Analyse ”: This means you should go into detail
“ Compare ”: This means you should state similarities and differences?
“ Contrast ”: This means you should state the differences?
“ Calculate ”: This means you should use numbers given to work out the value of something
“ Define ”: This means you should give the meaning of something.
“ Evaluate ”: This means you should consider both sides – pros and cons
“ Justify ”: This means you should use evidence to explain something.
“ To what extent ”: This means you should Judge the importance or success of something –Tell both the abilities and disabilities of that thing.
“ Argue ”: This means you should present a case with evidence or reasons.
“ Assess ”: This means you should Weigh up / give an informed judgment.
“ Comment on ”: This means you should give your opinion on something.
“ Debate ”: This means you should give a different perspective

General WAEC Biology Expos 2020

When you notice that your time is far spent and you are about to submit while you still have so many Difficult Questions to attempt, then you may have to stop cracking your brain and use our prediction method as explained above. BUT,
Don’t ever leave any Answers space blank. Don’t fail to answer any questions. Just choose an option if you don’t know the correct answers. That is better than leaving a question blank.
Ask your neighbor for an answer if possible.
Read and Understand what each Question is asking for before making an attempt of giving an answer.
Evaluate each answer option: After you might have finished reading and understanding a question, make an attempt of identifying the right type of answer that will answer the question even before looking at the options.
Eliminate each clearly wrong Answers. If you’re asked Questions like “what gender Is your father”? You don’t need an Oracle to tell you that the correct option will be “male”.
If every other option here fails, then guess like a magician. You may guess and get it correct.

Secrets to WAEC Biology Exam 2020

WAEC Biology Exam has both Objective and theory Questions. So you need to acknowledge the following:

Be smart and also recognize and recall all that you have been reading.
You have to be smart and conversant with all WAEC Question formats like questions of facts, sentence completion, true-false questions, analogy, multiple-choice, matching questions, etc..
The theory part always requires more detailed writing and Explanations.
The objective Questions have one, and only one correct answer. So don’t pick more than one answer for any question.
This WAEC Exam requires strict preparation and memorization. So read and memorize what you read.

You can get free WAEC Biology Questions and Answers 2021 here on Studentmajor.com So if you need it, then use the Comment box below to send us a request and we will send them to you anytime there are available.

Hope you found this guide solution Very helpful and useful? Please Feel free to share this solution with your friends and colleagues.

You can do that by using the social media sharing buttons below. Please don’t fail to let us know how you feel about this guide using the comment box below↓

12 comments

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Home » EXAM NEWS » 2023 WAEC Biology Objectives Questions and Answers ( Review)

2023 WAEC Biology Objectives Questions and Answers ( Review)

2023 WAEC Biology Questions and Answers. If you have been following us you will know that all our practical specimens questions/answers given are correct answers which correspond with the question you saw in your exam hall.

Nkedugists Team has been working hard for students to succeed without collecting any dime from them. If actually, you are seeking answers to the 2023 WAEC biology questions and answers then this article is for you.

We provide a very sure sample of what you will see in your exam hall that will help you pass your 2022 WAEC exams on biology.

Before you go for the WAEC exam, find ways to test yourself and identify your weak spots so you can make sure you’re really ready. Get and study the WAEC biology questions and answers given to you below.

Generally, Getting a good grade is about getting the best overall percentage in the exams that you take. Exam points are usually the hardest to get, so make sure you get all the easy — or at least easier — points correctly.

The 2023 WAEC biology questions and answers are also divided into two sections (A & B). where A is usually objectives with possibly 60 questions while B is always made up of 6 to 7 essay questions. Below are the WAEC biology questions and answers

1. A cell is a functional unit of living organisms due to

A. multicellular organisms are made up of cells
B. all cells in a multicellular organism function as a single cell
C. the function of a multicellular organism is the sum total of the functions of its constituent cells
D. the function of a single cell is superior to that of the multicellular organism
E. the cells of a multicelullar organism are similar in structure

ANSWER: A ( multicellular organisms are made up of cells )

2. The organelle that eliminates water from the body of protozoa is

A. plasma membrane
B. contractile vacuole
C. cell wall
D. protoplasm
E. nucleus

ANSWER: B ( contractile vacuole )

3 Spirogyra is known to be a multicellular plant due to …

A. its cells are linked together by cytoplasmic strands
B. its cells are joined to form organs
C. the cylindrical cells are linked end to end
D. the filaments consist of one cell only
E. it is an algea containing large vacuoles

ANSWER: A ( its cells are linked together by cytoplasmic strands )

4. The mechanism of gaseous exchange in living organisms is controlled by..

A. osmosis
B. inhalation
C. diffusion
D. exhalation
E. breathing

ANSWER: C (diffusion)

5. Which of the following statement is true about diffusion?

A. it involves movement of water molecules only
B. Molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
C. differentially permeable membrane must be present for diffusion to occur
D. It involves when a solute can no longer dissolve in a solvent of only solute molecules into the Bowman’s capsule
E. It occurs when a solute can no longer dissolve in a solvent

ANSWER: E (It occurs when a solute can no longer dissolve in a solvent)

6. The process of anearobic respiration of yeast in sugar solution is known as

A. oxidation
B. fermentation
C. tissue respiration
D. alcohol production
E. decomposition

7. The following are functions of the skeleton except

A. providing support for the body
B. protection of delicate internal organs
C. maintenance of the shape of the body
D. providing attachment for muscles
E. controlling growth rate in animals

ANSWER: E ( controlling growth rate in animals)

8. Muscles are attached to bones by means of

A. ligament
B. cartilage
C. synovial membrane
D. tendons
E. connective tissue

ANSWER: D ( tendons )

9. Which of the following tissues is not found in the stem and root of monocotyledons?

B. Cambium
E. Pericycle

ANSWER: B (Cambium)

10. The pulmonary vein carries

A. oxygenated blood from right ventricles to the lungs
B. oxygenated blood from lungs to the left auricle
C. deoxygenated blood from the lungs
D. oxygenated blood from lungs to the right auricle
E. deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs

11. The upper part of the trachea in mammals is called

B. epiglottis
D. glottis
E. bronchus

ANSWER: B ( Molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration)

12. Which of the following statement is NOT true of symbiosis?

A) Symbionts must be living B) It is an association of ‘give and take’ C) The association may involve two plants D) Association between two similar species E) Symbionts derive mutual benefit

13. A person whose blood can be donated to all other people, must have the blood group

A) O B) AB C) B D) A E) none of the above

Nkedugists Team try to help you with more updated information at the right time about 2023 WAEC Biology Questions and Answers. kindly subscribe or bookmark our website for us to provide you with it.

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2024 WAEC Biology Answers and Questions Released.

The Waec biology answers 2024 objective and essay questions are now available. The West African Examination Council, WAEC Biology exam paper will be written on Friday, 8th December, 2023 .

The Waec Biology 2 (Essay) paper will start by 9:30 am and will last for 1hr 40 mins while the biology 1 (Objective) exam will commence at 11:10 am and will last for 50 mins.

WAEC Biology Answers 2024.

Section B [Essay] Answer any FOUR questions. Write your answers on the answer booklet provided.

1. a. (i) List three characteristics of living organisms.

(ii) Explain briefly the characteristics listed in 1(a) (i) above. (b) In a tabular form, state four differences between plants and animals.

(ii) State four animal features and two plant features possessed by the organism named in 1(c)(i)

1.a (i) and (ii) Characteristics of living Organisms…

Movement; Living things change the position of the whole body/parts of the body; from one place to another; in search of food/shelter/mates, etc.

Excretion; This involves the removal/getting rid of waste products of cell metabolism; metabolic wastes are poisonous if allowed to accumulate.

Respiration; This is the breakdown/burning of food substances; by aerobic/anaerobic respiration; to release energy needed for all processes of life.

Reproduction; This is the ability of living organisms to produce new individuals of their own kind; this ensures the continuity of the species of an organism.

Irritability; Response/reaction of organisms; towards changes in the environment; to ensures survival.

Nutrition; The process involved in obtaining/manufacturing food; can be autotrophic/ heterotrophic; and utilizing it for growth and maintenance/life processes.

Growth; This is the irreversible increase; in size and weight of an organism; which leads to complexity and maturation.

Competition; Ability of organisms to struggle; for all necessity of life; to survive in their en vironment.

Adaptation; A bility of organisms to adjust; to changes in environment; for survival.

2. a. What is photosynthesis? b. List: (i) four external factors; (ii) two internal factors; that affect the rate of photosynthesis. c. (i) List the major products of the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis. (ii) State the importance of each of the products listed in 2(c) (i) above. d. (i)Explain why there are no green plants at the lower depths of some lakes. (ii) State why decomposers are important to flowering plants.

3. (a) Explain the following terms: (i) disease; (ii) symptoms of diseases (b) (i) List two physical and two chemical barriers that prevent pathogens from penetrating the body of an organism. (ii) Explain how vaccination protects the body from contracting infectious diseases. (c) Distinguish between an antibody and an antigen. (d) Name the causative agents of: (i) Malaria; (ii) Cholera; (iii) AIDS.

4. (a) (i) What is excretion? (ii) List the excretory organs in humans and name one waste product excreted by each organ. (b) How does the mammalian kidney function as an excretory organ? (c) Name the excretory organs in (i) insects; (ii) earthworms.

5. (a) (i) What is conservation? (ii) State six factors responsible for the decline of the abundance and variety of wildlife. (b) Outline six ways in which the government can improve the situation in 5(a) (ii) above. (c) (i) What is Eutrophication? (ii) State two causes of eutrophication.

6. (a) Describe the carbon cycle. (b) State the functions of: (i) nitrogen fixing bacteria; (ii) nitrifying bacteria; (iii) denitrifying bacteria; in nature. ANS: (a) Carbon occurs in the air/ atmosphere/as carbon dioxide/dissolved in the oceans /seas/ water bodies, and is circulated continuously; through the activity of microorganisms /decay bacteria/ saprophytic organisms /fungi; which decompose the dead organisms; plants /animals release carbon dioxide and water; the carbon dioxide released increases the concentration of carbon in the atmosphere /ocean/ sea /water bodies; this is further increased by respiration in plants and animals; combustion of wood/ coal/ oil/ fuel; some of the excess carbon dioxides is absorbed by the sea /water bodies and also used by plants in photosynthesis; organisms in seas /oceans /water bodies release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere/ water.

(b) Functions of – (i) Nitrogen-Fixing Bacteria; Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the nodules of legumes; those living freely in the soil; convert atmospheric nitrogen; into ammonia /ammonium compounds. (ii) Nitrifying Bacteria; They live freely in the soil; oxidize/breakdown the ammonium compounds; to nitrites; which are then oxidized by others/ Nitrobacter/ named bacteria; to nitrates. (iii) Denitrifying Bacteria; They live freely in the soil; these break down/ oxidize ammonium compounds; into nitrogen; and oxygen; which is released into the atmosphere.

7. (a) (i) What is a gene? (ii) Differentiate between the terms genotype and phenotype. (b) Explain the following terms: (i) hybrid; (ii) pure breeding; (iii) nucleotide. (c) In garden pea seeds, a smooth seed coat is dominant over a rough seed coat. With the aid of a genetic diagram, determine the result expected if a homozygous rough pea is crossed with a smooth seed coat plant whose parent were rough-coated.

8. (a) (i) Describe epigeal germination of a seed. (ii) In a tabular form, state three differences between epigeal germination and hypogeal germination. (b) (i) What is seed dormancy? (ii) State three ways by which dormancy in seeds can be broken. (c) State six advantages of using contraceptives in human populations.

WAEC Biology Objective Questions 2024.

Section A [Objectives] Answer ALL questions. Shade your answers on the answer booklet provided.

1. Where are most nitrogen compounds excreted from humans? A. kidneys B. liver C. rectum D skin.

2. A motor neurone transmits impulses from A muscle to the spinal cord. B receptor to muscle. C receptor to the spinal cord. D spinal cord to muscle.

3. In which order does light pass through these structures in the eye? A. cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → retina B. cornea → vitreous humour → lens → aqueous humour → retina C. lens → aqueous humour → cornea → vitreous humour → retina D. lens → vitreous humour → cornea → aqueous humour → retina.

4. A person with Down’s syndrome is born with 47 chromosomes in each cell, instead of 46. What could cause this? A. A mutation happened during the production of the egg cell. B. More than one sperm fused with the egg at fertilisation. C. Radiation caused a change in the structure of a gene in the father’s sperm. D. The mother was exposed to harmful chemicals while she was pregnant.

5. A red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant. All the offspring have red flowers. What is the genotype of these offspring? A. RR and Rr B. RR only C. Rr only D. rr only.

6. A plant has flowers whose anthers mature and fall off before the stigma is fully developed. What will this prevent? A. cross-pollination B. insect-pollination C. self-pollination D. wind-pollination.

7. The cell wall of a plant cell is removed using an enzyme. What would happen if this cell is then placed in distilled water? A. It would take longer for the cell to become turgid. B. Proteins in the cytoplasm would leave through the cell membrane. C. The cell would become smaller as water passes out. D. The cell would burst as water moves into it.

8. Some organisms live at the bottom of the seas where it is very dark. To synthesise glucose, they use energy from chemicals in the very hot water that comes out of volcanoes. What is a distinguishing feature of these organisms? A. Their enzymes are easily denatured by heat. B. They do not need carbon dioxide. C. They do not need to be green. D. They obtain energy only as carnivores.

9. Under which set of conditions will the transpiration rate of a well-watered plant be fastest? A. a cool, dry, windless day B. a cool, rainy, windy day C. a hot, dry, windy day D. a hot, rainy, windy day.

10. Why is glucose found in the urine of diabetics? A. increased uptake and use of glucose by the body cells B. not enough glucose in the blood is converted to glycogen C. stored fats in the body are being oxidized D. too much glucose is absorbed by the kidney cells.

11. Which bones form a joint at the shoulder? A. humerus and scapula B. humerus and ulna C. radius and ulna D. radius and scapula.

12. Which sequence describes the flow of energy in an ecosystem? A. carnivore → herbivore → plant → Sun B. plant → herbivore → carnivore → Sun C. Sun → carnivore → herbivore → plant D. Sun → plant → herbivore → carnivore.

PS: Once again, there is nothing like the Waec biology expo. Do not fall victim to scammers online trying to obtain money from you with fake promises of having access to a live question paper before the exam. What we have on this page are likely exam questions from Waec biology past questions and answers to serve as a revision guide.

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Biology WAEC Past Questions

Post-UTME Past Questions - Original materials are available here - Download PDF for your school of choice + 1 year SMS alerts

A. multicellular organisms are made up of cells
B. all cells in a multicellular organism function as a single cell
C. the function of a multicellular organism is the sum total of the functions of its constituent cells
D. the function of a single cell is superior to that of the multicellular organism
E. the cells of a multicelullar organism are similar in structure
A. plasma membrane
B. contractile vacuole
C. cell wall
D. protoplasm
A. its cells are linked together by cytoplasmic strands
B. its cells are joined to form organs
C. the cylindrical cells are linked end to end
D. the filaments consist of one cell only
E. it is an algea containing large vacuoles
B. inhalation
C. diffusion
D. exhalation
E. breathing
A. it involves movement of water molecules only
B. Molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
C. differentially permeable membrane must be present for diffusion to occur
D. It involves when a solute can no longer dissolve in a solvent of only solute molecules into the Bowman's capsule
E. It occurs when a solute can no longer dissolve in a solvent
Mathematics
English Language
Animal Husbandry
Literature in English
Accounts - Principles of Accounts
Christian Religious Knowledge (CRK)
Agricultural Science
Islamic Religious Knowledge (IRK)
Civic Education
Further Mathematics
Home Economics
Book Keeping
Data Processing
Catering Craft Practice
Computer Studies
Physical Education
Office Practice

2023 WAEC English (Essay, OBJ & Oral) Answers [17th May]

There will be three papers in Waec English 2023 – Papers 1, 2 (Objectives and Essay) to be written from 9:30 am to 12.30 pm and Paper 3 (Test of Orals) which will start by 2:00 pm and end by 2.45 pm. The WAEC English question 2023 comes in the following question papers.

PAPER 1: This Will consist of eighty multiple-choice questions, all of which should be answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of five essay topics and a passage each to test candidates’ comprehension and summary skills. Candidates will be expected to write an essay on one of the topics and answer all the questions on Comprehension and Summary passages. The paper will last 2 hours and carry 100 marks.
PAPER 3: Will consist of sixty multiple-choice items on Test of Orals for candidates in Nigeria and Liberia, and on Listening Comprehension for candidates in Ghana, The Gambia, and Sierra Leone. All the questions will be answered in 45 minutes for 30 marks.

Table of Contents

A. 2023 WAEC ORAL ENGLISH OBJECTIVES (OBJ) ANSWERS:

Answers Loading…………..20%

English Language 1 (Objective) – 11:30am – 12:30pm English Language 3 (Test of Orals) ** /**** – 2:00pm – 4:45pm

2023 WAEC ORAL ENGLISH THEORY (ESSAY) QUESTIONS:

2023 WAEC ENGLISH ESSAY ANSWERS:

We are proud to announce that [Your School’s Name] achieved remarkable success in several events. Our athletes secured the following achievements:

1. Athletics: – Benjamin John: Gold Medal – 100m Sprint – Jennifer Akpan: Silver Medal – High Jump

2. Football: – Victor osimehen : Reached the Semifinals

3. Basketball: – gbadebo Usman: Bronze Medal

4. Volleyball: – Sarah Ola: Silver Medal

5. Swimming: – Emmanuel Nwite: Gold Medal – 200m Freestyle – chidera Nwite: Bronze Medal – 100m Butterfly

6. Table Tennis: – Roselyn Joe: Silver Medal – Singles Category

We commend the outstanding performances of our athletes, coaches, and support staff who worked tirelessly to bring glory to our school. Their dedication and hard work have made us immensely proud.

Our public facilities, ranging from parks and playgrounds to community centers and public transportation systems, play a vital role in enhancing the quality of life for citizens. These spaces are meant to foster social interaction, physical well-being, and community development. However, it is disheartening to witness their neglect and the subsequent decline in their usability and appeal.

The maintenance of public facilities is not merely a cosmetic concern; it directly impacts the safety and overall experience of the people who utilize them. Cracked sidewalks, broken equipment, and poorly maintained infrastructure not only diminish the aesthetic value of these spaces but also pose risks to public safety. Moreover, the lack of regular upkeep sends a message of apathy and disregard for the well-being of the citizens who depend on these facilities.

It is essential that we address this issue collectively and hold both the responsible authorities and ourselves accountable for the state of our public amenities. The government should prioritize the allocation of sufficient resources and funds towards regular maintenance programs. Adequate staffing, training, and monitoring mechanisms must be in place to ensure that public facilities are well-maintained and safe for public use.

In addition, we as citizens need to develop a sense of ownership and responsibility towards these facilities. It is our duty to report any maintenance issues promptly and encourage our communities to participate in volunteer initiatives aimed at preserving and improving our public spaces. By actively engaging in the upkeep of these facilities, we not only contribute to the overall well-being of our neighborhoods but also foster a sense of pride and unity among residents.

I urge the authorities to take immediate action in addressing the neglect of public facilities and implement effective maintenance strategies. I also encourage your esteemed newspaper to continue shedding light on this issue and advocate for the improvement of our public infrastructure. Together, we can create a positive change and ensure that future generations can enjoy well-maintained and vibrant public spaces.

Thank you for your attention to this matter. I believe that by highlighting this issue, we can inspire action and bring about the necessary improvements for the benefit of our communities.

Yours sincerely,

[Your Name] ••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••

Reviving the Vibrancy of Clubs and Societies: Reigniting the Flame of Engagement in Schools

In the bustling hallways and classrooms of our school, an important element seems to have lost its spark – the clubs and societies. Once vibrant and bustling with activity, they now lay dormant, overshadowed by the ever-increasing demands of academic pursuits. It is high time we recognize the crucial need to revive these invaluable organizations and reintroduce their profound impact on our personal growth and development.

Clubs and societies serve as the heartbeat of any educational institution. They provide a platform for students to explore their passions and interests beyond the confines of the classroom. From debating and drama clubs to sports teams and environmental societies, these extracurricular activities offer students an opportunity to engage in activities they are passionate about, fostering a sense of belonging and camaraderie among like-minded individuals.

First and foremost, reviving the activities of clubs and societies enhances the holistic development of students. As we navigate through the challenges of academic life, it is imperative to strike a balance between academic pursuits and extracurricular involvement. These organizations not only cultivate essential skills such as leadership, teamwork, and time management but also provide an avenue for self-expression and creativity. By engaging in a variety of clubs, students can develop a well-rounded personality and uncover hidden talents, which may go unnoticed within the confines of a classroom.

Furthermore, clubs and societies serve as a catalyst for personal growth and self-discovery. They act as a laboratory of experiences, enabling students to step out of their comfort zones and confront new challenges. For instance, a shy and introverted student might discover their flair for public speaking by joining the debating society. Similarly, a budding artist may find a platform to showcase their artistic prowess through participation in an art club. These transformative experiences shape character, build resilience, and instill a sense of confidence, paving the way for future success.

Moreover, clubs and societies foster a sense of community and social responsibility within our school. They provide a space where students from diverse backgrounds can come together, united by a shared passion or interest. Through collaborations, events, and community outreach initiatives, these organizations create opportunities for students to develop empathy, compassion, and a sense of social consciousness. Engaging in activities that benefit society instills a sense of pride and responsibility, nurturing well-rounded individuals who are not only academically proficient but also socially aware.

In light of these significant benefits, it is essential for our school community to rally together and rekindle the flame of engagement within our clubs and societies. Teachers and administrators must play an active role in creating an environment that encourages and supports extracurricular involvement. They can organize workshops, awareness campaigns, and orientations to showcase the myriad opportunities available to students. Additionally, regular meetings, competitions, and events must be planned and executed to maintain interest and participation.

Likewise, it is incumbent upon us, the students, to seize these opportunities and actively engage in clubs and societies. Let us step forward, join these organizations, and wholeheartedly contribute our time, talent, and passion. By doing so, we will not only enrich our own lives but also create a vibrant and dynamic school culture that celebrates diversity and individuality.

In conclusion, reviving the activities of clubs and societies is vital for the holistic development and growth of students. These organizations provide a fertile ground for personal exploration, skill development, and social engagement.

••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••

Once upon a time in a small village nestled among rolling hills, there lived a kind-hearted farmer named Thomas. He worked tirelessly to provide for his family, cultivating his land with utmost care. However, the village had experienced a drought for several months, leaving the fields parched and barren. Thomas watched helplessly as his crops withered away, his hopes fading along with them.

One morning, Thomas received news that a neighboring village had been blessed with rain and their fields were flourishing. Filled with determination, he decided to seek assistance from his prosperous neighbors. With a small sack slung over his shoulder, he set off on a long journey towards their village.

Arriving tired and hungry, Thomas humbly explained his situation to the villagers. Moved by his plight, the villagers were willing to help but couldn’t spare much due to their own needs. A kind farmer named Robert approached Thomas and offered him half a loaf of bread, apologizing for not being able to provide more.

Thomas gratefully accepted the half loaf, understanding that half a loaf was better than none at all. With renewed energy, he set off on his return journey, cherishing the small hope that the half loaf represented. As he walked, he contemplated the saying, “Half a loaf is better than none,” and realized its profound truth.

Back in his village, Thomas shared the bread with his family. Though it was a modest portion, it brought nourishment and lifted their spirits. Inspired by the half loaf, Thomas devised a plan. He gathered his fellow farmers and proposed they pool their resources to combat the drought collectively. Though skeptical at first, the villagers agreed, realizing that half a loaf was better than none when faced with adversity.

Together, they dug channels to redirect water from a distant river to their fields, implemented efficient irrigation techniques, and supported one another in their efforts. Despite the ongoing drought, the collective action yielded positive results. The crops began to grow, and hope returned to the hearts of the villagers.

Word of their success spread, and neighboring villages sought guidance from Thomas and his fellow farmers. They willingly shared their knowledge and resources, emphasizing the power of unity and the importance of making the most of limited resources. As the villages banded together, the effects of the drought were mitigated, and the communities flourished.

The saying, “Half a loaf is better than none,” resonated throughout the region as a symbol of resilience and resourcefulness. It reminded people that even in the face of adversity, it was crucial to make the most of what they had, no matter how small or insignificant it may seem.

Years later, the drought ended, and the villages thrived. Thomas, now regarded as a wise elder, continued to impart the lessons he learned from that half loaf of bread. He emphasized the importance of gratitude, humility, and the power of unity in overcoming challenges.

And so, the saying “Half a loaf is better than none” became a timeless reminder that with determination, cooperation, and a positive mindset, even the smallest of provisions can lead to great achievements. ••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••

COMPREHENSION

(6g) Mma Koku was in her early 70’s

(6h) Personification

(6i) (a) Adverbial clause (b) It modifies the verb phrase “shall see”

(6j) (i) Frail (ii) Bad (iii) A duty (iv) Heavy (v) Deeply •••••••••••••••

ANSWER (7) SUMMARY

-Parents are to inculcate self discipline in their children

-Parents are to teach their children the importance of hard work

-Parents are expected to train their children to comply with laws

-Parents are illuminate their children on the value of integrity

-Parents should serve as role models to their children

-Parents are to train their children to work intentionally to achieve success

B. 2023 WAEC ENGLISH LANGUAGE OBJECTIVES (OBJ) ANSWERS:

C. 2023 waec english language oral answers, related posts.

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Solved WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers For 2023/2024 (Essay and Objectives)

The questions and answers for the Waec Mathematics 2023 exam have been released. The General Mathematics essay and objective paper for the West African Examination Council (WAEC) will now be written on Thursday, 1st June 2023.

WAEC Mathematics, WAEC Mathematics, WAEC Maths, WAEC Mathematics questions and answers, WAEC mathematics syllabus 2023, previous questions on mathematics, WAEC mathematics exhibition 2023, WAEC past questions pdf download.

Google searches for the above keywords are conducted by WAEC candidates. Here you will find WAEC Mathematics questions and answers.

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Here are the WAEC Mathematics questions and answers for 2023/2024. Are you a WAEC candidate? If you answered yes, this article will provide you with the WAEC Mathematics answers and the necessary strategies to excel on your WAEC exam.

The West African Senior School Certificate Examination Board (WASSCE) formulates and compiles the WAEC questions. Ensure that you observe the WAEC’s instructions

The WAEC Maths 2 (Essay) exam will begin at 9:30 am and last for 2 hours and thirty minutes, while the Waec Mathematics 1 (Objective) exam will begin at 3:00 pm and last for one hour and thirty minutes. In this post, you will find the WAEC Maths questions and answers 2023 for candidates who will be taking the examination based on questions from previous years.

The following questions and answers on WAEC Mathematics have been provided to assist candidates in comprehending the expected requirements for the WAEC Mathematics Examination.

Mathematics OBJ WAEC Answers

Scroll to the bottom to get the 2023 WAEC answers and refresh the page

The 2023 WAEC Mathematics Answers will be posted here during the examination WAEC Maths 2023 Answers Loading…

Note: The answers below are for 2022

1-10: ABBDBBBCAC

11-20: ABDDCCCBDD

21-30: ADCDBBCBCC

31-40: CCBCABBCCD

41-50: CDCBCADCBC

2023/2024 WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers

Mathematics question and answer for the 2023 WAEC can be found at then of this post.

PAPER 2 [Essay]

Respond to any… inquiries. Write your answers in the supplied answer booklet.

1. (a) Solve: 7x + 4 < (4x + 3). (b) Salem, Sunday, and Shaka divided N 1,100 between them. For every N2.00 Salem receives, Sunday receives 50 kobo, and for every N4.00 Sunday receives, Shaka receives N2.00. Find Shaka’s share.

a) The angle of depression of a boat from the cliff’s midpoint is 35 degrees. Determine the height of the precipice if the boat is 120 metres from the base of the cliff.

(b) P and Q are x kilometres apart. Two motorists set out simultaneously from P to Q at 60 km/h and 80 km/h, respectively. The quicker driver arrived at Q thirty minutes before the other. Determine the worth of x.

3. (a) A child of height 1.2 m stands 6 m from the base of a vertical lamppost measuring 4.2 m in length. If the lantern is located at the top of the pole, depict this in a diagram.

(b) Determine the:

(i) the length of the boy’s shadow cast by the lamp; (ii) the angle of elevation of the lamp relative to the boy, rounded to the nearest degree.

4. (a) The current age ratio between a father and his son is 10:3. How many years from now, if the son is 15 years old, will the ratio of their ages be 2:1?

(b) The arithmetic mean of x, y, and z is 6, whereas it is 9 for x, y, z, t, u, v, and w. Determine the geometric mean of t, u, v, and w.

5. On the same horizontal ground, point H is 20 metres distant from the base of a tower. From point H, the elevation angles of point (P) on the tower and the tower’s apex (T) are 30o and 50o, respectively. Calculate and correct three figures of significance:

(a) /PT/; (b) The distance between H and the summit of the tower; (c) The location of H if H’s angle of depression from the top of the tower is to be 40 degrees.

GENERAL MATHEMATICS /MATHEMATICS (CORE) 1

Today’s WAEC Obj answers still loading…

Solutions to WAEC Mathematics Questions

1. Express, correct to three significant figures, 0.003597.

2 . Evaluate: (0.064)^-1/3

3 . Solve: y+1/2 – 2y-1/3 = 4

4. Simplify, correct to three significant figures, (27.63)^2 – (12.37)^2

5. If 7 + y = 4 ( mod 8), find the least value of y, 10<=y<=30

6. If T = (prime numbers) and

M = (odd numbers) are subsets of

U = (x: 0<x<=10, and x is an integer), find (T’ n M’).

A. (4, 6, 8, 10)

B. (1, 4, 6, 8, 10)

C. (1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10)

D. (1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9)

7. Evaluate: log9 base 3 – log8 base 2 /log9 base 3

8. If 23 y = 1111 two , find the value of y.

9. If 6, P and 14 are consecutive terms in an Arithmetic Progression (A.P), find the value of P.

10. Evaluate: 2 (SQRT 28) – 3 (SQRT 50) + (SQRT 50)

A. 4 (SQRT 7) – 21 (SQRT 2)

B. 4 (SQRT 7) – 11 (SQRT 2)

C. 4 (SQRT 7) – 9 (SQRT 2)

D. 4 (SQRT 7) + (SQRT 2)

11. If m : n = 2 : 1, evaluate 3m^2 – 2n^2 /m^2 + mn

12. H varies directly as p and inversely as the square of y. If H = 1, p = 8 and y = 2, find H in terms of p and y

A. H = p /4y^2

B. H = 2p / y^2

C. H = p / 2 y^2

D. H = p / y^2

13. Solve 4x^2 – 16x + 15

A. X = 1 (1/2) or X = -2 (1/2)

B. X = 1 (1/2) or X = 2 (1/2)

C. X = 1 (1/2) or X = -1 (1/2)

D. X = -1 (1/2) or X = -2 (1/2)

14. Evaluate 0.42 divided by 2.5 /0.5 x 2.05, leaving the answer in standard form .

A. 1.639 x 10^2

B. 1.639 x 10^1

C. 1.639 x 10^-1

D. 1.639 x 10^-2

15. Simplify: log6 – 3log3 + 2/3log27.

16. Bala sold an article for 6,900.00 naira and made a profit of 15 percent. Calculate his percentage profit if he had sold for 6600.00.

A. 5 percent

B. 10 percent

C. 12 percent

D. 13 percent

17. If 3p = 4q and 9p = 8q-12, find the value of pq.

18. If (0.25)^y = 32, find the value of y.

A. y = -5/2

B. y = -3/2

19. There are 8 boys and 4 girls in a lift. What is the probability that the first person who steps out of the lift will be a boy?

20. Simplify: x^2 – 5x – 14 / x^2 – 9x + 14

A. X – 7 /x + 7

B. X + 7 /x – 7

C. X – 2 /x + 4

D. X + 2 /x – 2

21. Which of these values would make 3p – 1 /p^2 – p undefined?

22. The total surface area of a solid cylinder is 165 cm 2 . If the base diameter is 7 cm, calculate its height. (Take pi = 22/7)

23 . If 2^a = SQRT(64) and b/a = 3, evaluate a^2 + b^2.

24. In triangle XYZ, line XZ = 32 cm, angle YXZ = 52 degrees and XZY = 90 degrees. Find, correct to the nearest centimeter, line XZ.

25. If log 2 base x = 0.3, evaluate log 8 base x.

26. An arc subtends an angle of 72 degrees at the centre of a circle. Find the length of the arc if the radius of the circle is 3.5 cm. (Take pi = 22/7)

27. Make b the subject of the relation

lb = 1/2(a+b)h

A. ah /2l – h

B. 2l – h/al

C. al/2l – h

D. al/2 – h

29. Eric sold his house through an agent who charged 8 percent commission on the selling price. If Eric received 117,760.00 dollars after the sale, what was the selling price of the house?

A. 130,000.00 dollars

B. 128,000.00 dollars

C. 125,000.000 dollars

D. 120,000.00 dollars

29. Find the angle which an arc of length 22 cm subtends at the centre of a circle of radius 15 cm. (take pi = 22/7)

A. 70 degrees

B. 84 degrees

C. 96 degrees

D. 156 degrees

30. A rectangular board has a length of 15 cm and width x cm. If its sides are doubled, find its new area.

A. 60x cm squared

B. 45x cm squared

C. 30x cm squared

D. 15x cm squared

31. In the diagram, POS and ROT are straight lines. OPQR is a parallelogram, line OS = line OT and angle OST = 50 degrees. Calculate the value of angle OPQ.

A. 100 degrees

B. 120 degrees

C.140 degrees

D. 160 degrees

32. Factorize completely: (2x + 2y)(x-y) + (2x – 2y)(x + y)

A. 4(x – y)(x + y)

B. 4(x – y)

C. 2(x – y) (x + y)

D. 2(x – y)

33. The interior angles of a polygon are 3x, 2x, 4x, 3x and 6x. Find the size of the smallest angle of the polygon.

A. 80 degrees

B. 60 degrees

C. 40 degrees

D. 30 degrees

34. A box contains 2 white and 3 blue identical balls. If two balls are picked at random from the box, one after the other with replacement, what is the probability that they are of different colours?

35. Find the equation of a straight line passing through the points (1, -5) and having gradient of ¾.

A. 3x + 4y – 23 = 0

B. 3x + 4y + 23 = 0

C. 3x – 4y + 23 = 0

D. 3x – 4y – 23 = 0

36. The foot of a ladder is 6 m from the base of an electric pole. The top of the ladder rest against the pole at a point 8 m above the ground. How long is the ladder?

37. If tan x = 3/4, 0<x<90,

evaluate cos x/2sin x

38. From the top of a vertical cliff 20 m high , a boat at sea can be sighted 75 m away and on the same horizontal position as the foot of the cliff. Calculate, correct to the nearest degree, the angle of depression of the boat from the top of the cliff.

A. 56 degrees

B. 75 degrees

C. 16 degrees

D. 15 degrees

39. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle of radius 18 cm. If angle ZXY = 70 degrees, calculate the length of arc ZY. (Take pi = 22/7)

In the diagram, RT is tangent to the circle at R, angle PQR = 70 degrees, angle QRT = 52 degrees, angle QSR = y and angle PRQ = x. Use the diagram to answer questions 40 and 41

40. Find the value of y.

B. 60 degree

C. 52 degree

D. 18 degree

41. Calculate the value of x

B. 58 degrees

C. 55 degrees

D. 48 degrees

42. Calculate the variance of 2, 4, 7, 8, 9

43. The fourth term of an Arithmetic Progression (A.P.) is 37 and the first term is -20. Find the common difference.

In the diagram, PQ is parallel to RS, angle QFG = 105 degrees and angle FEG = 50 degrees. Use the diagram to answer questions 44 and 45.

44. Find the value of m

A. 130 degrees

B. 105 degrees

C. 75 degrees

D. 55 degrees

45. Find the values of n

A. 40 degrees

B. 55 degrees

D. 130 degrees

46. A box contains 5 red, 6 green and 7 yellow pencils of the same size. What is the probability of picking a green pencil at random?

47. The pie chart represents fruits on display in a grocery shop. If there are 60 oranges on display, how many apples are there?

The following are scores obtained by some students in a test.

8 18 10 14 18 11 13 14 17 15 8 16 13

Use this information to answer questions 48 to 50

48. Find the mode of the distribution

49. Find the median score.

50. How many students scored above the mean score?

Are the WAEC objective questions difficult? Let’s quickly move to the Solutions of 2020/2021 WAEC Mathematics Questions

The two zeros before 3 are not counted since they are not between whole numbers

0.064^(-1/3) = 5/2

3 . y+1/2 – 2y-1/3 = 4

Multiply through by 6

3y + 3 – 4y + 2 = 24

Collecting like terms

6. U = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10)

T = (2, 3, 5, 7)

M = (1, 3, 5, 7, 5)

(T’ n M’) = the numbers in the union set U but not in T and M

(T’ n M’) = (4, 6, 8, 10)

7. Log9 base 3 – log 8 base 2 / log 9 base 3

Log3^2 base 3 – log2^3 base 2 / log 3^2

2log3 base 3 – 3log2 base 2 / 2log3 base 3

Log3 base 3 = 1

Log 2 base = 1

Reason : Log to its own base is 1

This implies:

2 -3 /2 = -1/2

8. Convert both sides to base ten

2xy^1 + 3Xy^0 = 1×2^3 + 1×2^2 + 1x 2^1 + 1×2^0

2y +3 = 8 + 4 + 2 + 2 + 1

2y + 3 = 15

Y = 12/2 = 6

9. 6, p, 14

First term a = 6, third term = 14

Number of terms of A.P = a + (n-1)d

T3 =14 = a + 2d

6 + 2d = 14

Common difference d = 14

P = second term

T2 = a + d = 6 + 4 = 10

10. 4 SQRT(7) – 15 SQRT(2) + 6 SQRT(2)

4 SRT(7) – 9 SRT(2)

11 . m/n = 2/1

3(2n)^2 – 2n^2 / 2n^2 +2n^2

12n^2 – 2n^2 / 4n^2 + 2n^2 = 10n^2/6n^2

12. H = kp / y^2 where k = constant, H = 1, p = 8, y = 2

k = Hy^2 /p = 4×1/8 = ½

13. Factorizing:

(4x^2 -6x)(-10x +15)

2x(2x – 3)-5(2x – 3)

2x-5 = 0 or 2x-3 = 0

X = 5/2 or x = 3/2

16. 15 percent profit = 115 = 6,900 naira

Let the percent Bala sold the article at 6600 naira = x

115 = 6,900

Cross multiplying

6900x = 759000

X = 110 percent

The percentage profit if he had sold it at 6600 naira = 110 – 100

= 10 percent

17. 3p = 4q

9p = 8q – 12

8q – 12 -(36q/3)

24q – 36 – 36q

p = -4, pq = -3x-4 = 12

18. (0.25)^y = 32

(1/4)^y = 32

20. (x-7)(x+2)/ (x+7)(x+2) = (x-7) / (x+7)

21. 3p – 1/p^2 -p

It will be undefined when the denominator p^2 – p = 0

therefore, p = 1 would make it zero

T.S.A = 165 cm^2

T.S.A = 2pirh + 2pir^2

165 -2x(22/7)x3.5^2 = 2x(22/7) x3.5h

165 – 77 = 22h,

Are you enjoying the Solutions to WAEC Mathematics Questions ? Let’s continue .

23. 2^a = SQRT(64)

but b/a = 3

therefore, b = 3a = 3×3 = 9

a^2 + b^2 = 3^2 + 9^2 = 90

24. Angle XYZ = 180 – (90+52)

180-142 = 38 degrees

From sin rule,

XZ/sin38 = 32/sin52

26. tita = 72

arc length = 2pir(tita/360)

arc length = 2x( 22/7 )x3.5x(72/360) = 4.4 cm

27. 2lb = (a+b)h

2lb = ah + bh

2lb- bh = ah

b(2l-h) = ah

b = ah/2l-h

28. agent commission = 8 percent

percentage received by eric = 100 – 8 = 92

let the selling price be x

92x/100 = 117760

x = 11776000/92

x = 128000.00 dollars

29. arc length = 2pir(tita/360)

22 = 2×22/7x15xtita/360

tita = 55440/660

tita = 84 degrees

if its sides are doubled,

area = 30* 2x = 60x cm^2

31. A 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. C 41. B 4 2. C 43. C 44. D 45. C 4 6 A 47. A 48. C 49. C 50. A

These questions and solutions are WAEC practice questions to get you prepared for your 2023/2024 WAEC Mathematics Questions .

WAEC Maths Essay and Objective 2023 (EXPO)

The above questions are not exactly 2023 WAEC Mathematics questions and answers but likely WAEC Maths repeated questions and answers.

These questions are for practice. The 2023 WAEC Mathematics expo will be posted on this page 30 minutes before the WAEC Mathematicsexamination starts. Keep checking and refreshing this page for the answers.

This post will be updated as soon as 2023/2024 WAEC Mathematics Questions are out.

What you will see won’t be far from the ones above. I had taken quality time to bring down the solution to a layman’s understanding .

WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers 2023 Loading…

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What you will see won’t be far from the ones above. I had taken quality time to bring down the solution to a layman’s understanding.

If you have questions about WAEC Mathematics questions and answers, use the comment box and you will be attended to as soon as possible. Goodluck.

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A. 2023 WAEC ORAL ENGLISH OBJECTIVES (OBJ) ANSWERS:

2023 WAEC ORAL ENGLISH THEORY (ESSAY) QUESTIONS:

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